Re: Question on John 17:3

From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Tue Dec 28 1999 - 06:10:28 EST


Therefore if hON APESTEILAS in 'TON MONON ALHQINON QEON KAI hON APESTEILAS'
is a substantive, why does the lack of article before hON APESTEILAS not
make this a GS construction?
Sincerely,
Dan

Dear Dan,

The GS rule is not used in John 17:3 mainly do I think to the use of a
proper name, "Jesus."

There appears to be only 3 passages (according to Wallace) in the NT that
have Christologically significance wherein the Granville Sharp rule clearly
applies (Titus 2:13; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 5:20). The rule itself has been
used with several other texts with uncertain textual variants (Acts 20:28;
Jude 4) "and others had proper names (Eph 5:5; 2 Thess 1:12; 1 Tim 5:21; 2
Tim 4:1)." (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, page 276)

The TSKS construction has further limitations to be considered before it
comes under the GS rule. "(1). Neither is impersonal; (2) neither is
plural; (3) neither is a proper name" (Wallace, page 272).

As I am but the Littlest of Greeks could some else please confirm this.

Sola Gratia.
Jay
Always Under Grace!

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