Re: John 8:58 (Does anybody have anything NEW to say?)

From: Numberup@worldnet.att.net
Date: Sat Dec 25 1999 - 10:13:25 EST


But does not all of this imply that Jesus and the head religious leaders of the Jews
in Jerusalem were speaking Greek, or thinking in Greek? And how likely is that?
The Hebrew of Exodus 3:14 does not translate literally into EGO EIMI hO WN, that
would be "Ani Hawayah." Rather, it says "Ehyeh asher Ehyeh, "I will be who I will
be," (Botterweck, TDOT, vol. 3, p. 381; Propp, The Anchor Bible, p. 204) which is
something else.

In addition, the divine name YHWH was not uttered as a "circumlocution" on the Day of
Atonement. That was the one day it was uttered as a "shem hammeforash," or
distinctive name in its true letters, by the high priest in the temple, according to
the Mishnah and Talmud.

Solomon Landers
Memra Institute for Biblical Research
http://www.memrain.org

"David C. Hindley" wrote:

> Carl & All,
>
> Hopefully this will put a new twist on this issue. <g>
>
> So far, the question seems to be revolving around the topic of implied
> predicates. The posts that were of interest to me were Charles' suggestion
> that EGW EIMI implies a claim to identity with the speaker in Exodus 3:14
> (i.e., EGW EIMI implies hO WN as a predicate), and Steven's response that
> there is in reality no implied predicate here but rather a common Greek
> grammatical construction meaning "I am (he)" (in other words, a straight
> answer).
> <snip>

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