From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Jan 18 2000 - 11:17:12 EST
At 9:56 AM -0500 1/18/00, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>Does the word DIA mean in II Timothy 1:6 mean the same thing as the word
>META in 1 Timothy 4:14? Context makes me think that the words mean the same
>thing, but there's also part of me that wants to read deep theological
>significance into the differing choice of words...
>
>If the words really do mean the same thing, should I read agency into it,
>or is the implied relationship weaker? What is the reasonable range of
>meanings these prepositions might take in the given contexts?
>
>If the words differ, precisely how do they differ?
I assume it these phrases that are 'exercising' you:
2 Tim 1:6 DIA THS EPIQESEWS TWN CEIRWN MOU.
1 Tim 4:14 hO EDOQH SOI DIA PROFHTEIAS META EPIQESEWS TWN CEIRWN TOU
PRESBUTEROU.
They do seem somewhat close, don't they? But I think that the sense of DIA
in 2 Tim 1:6 is "by means of"--the very same usage as DIA PROFHTEIAS in 1
Tim 4:14, whereas the META phrase with EPIQESEWS TWN CEIRWN + gen. in this
particular instance seems rather to be 'accompanied by/with"--i.e. it marks
an associated factor. While Louw and Nida do show META + genitive in a few
instances functioning to express means (89.78), they note it as "a marker
of means, with the probable additional implication of attendant
circumstance" and then they point to the article 89.79, where the focus of
META + gen. is rather "marker of circumstances which contribute
significantly to the context of the principle event -- 'with, in.' I think
that 89.79 is the applicable category here.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
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