From: OteroFam3@aol.com
Date: Mon Jan 24 2000 - 06:19:25 EST
Hello all,
My question is more about the so called Granville Sharpe rule; Ephesians
2.20 was the text my pastor referred to that brings up the question. I was
told the rule doesn't apply here because the substantives are plural. I
checked in A.T. Robertson's grammar on the subject and he says on page 787
that otherwise distinct groups can be grouped together with the one article
for the purpose at hand (citing Eph. 2.20). This is not terribly clear, but I
understand what he is saying. However he says nothing about number as regards
this situation (page 788 "Difference in Number", doesn't really apply). I
don't have Blass or any other really "authoritative" source, can anyone shed
some light? If this question has already been answered before, then my
sincerest apologies. Any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.
Esteban A. Otero
Tampa,FL -USA
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