From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@speedgate.net)
Date: Sat Jan 29 2000 - 12:01:19 EST
Steven Ceraig Miller replied;
>To: Roger Hutchinson,
>
><< Can one adamantly say that the verse must mean such and such and cannot
>mean anything else? Might one conclude that the verse (and Jesus' intent)
>is to be mystical and that the verse is not decipherable except, perhaps,
>within some broader context (whatever that turns out to be)? >>
>
<Large omision>
>Davies & Allison [1997] suggest that Mt 24:34 means the following:
>
><< 'All these things' refers to the eschatological scenario as outlined in
>vv. 4-31 and declares that it shall come to pass before Jesus' 'generation'
>has gone >> (3:367).
>
>Davies & Allison go on to note:
>
><< If it be objected that this makes for a false prophecy and raises the
>issue of 2 Pet 3.3-4, we can only reply that some of Jesus' contemporaries
>were perhaps still alive when Matthew wrote, so he did not have the problem
>we do >> (3:368).
>
>Davies & Allison also note that "most modern commentators" concur with
>their interpretation here. What grammatical justification is there for
>taking it any other way?
>
Steven has made a good point here. This is a problematic verse for those
who think that the burden of Matt 24 (totally unlike Mark 13) is concerning
the end of the age or eschatalogical. The punch line of Matt. 24 is similar
to that of Mark 13 - vs. 10) In Matt. the punch line is vss 13-14. The task
that Matt is trying to achieve is the proclamation of the gospel to the
nations. The generation to do that was his own.
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
winbery@speedgate.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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