From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sat Feb 05 2000 - 11:10:49 EST
<x-rich>At 5:31 PM +0200 2/5/00, Kevin Smith wrote:
<excerpt>Dear friends
Could someone kindly explain the expression DIDASKONTES hA MH DEI in
Titus 1:11? Why MH rather than OU with the indicative DEI? I'm used to
seeing DEI coupled with an infinitive; is one supposed to be supplied
here?
</excerpt>
First of all, yes, I think the infinitive DIDASKEIN needs to be
understood with the DEI; as for the MH, I suspect that the DEI clause
is here functioning something like an imperative, which would take a MH
rather than an OU: "teaching things that you should NOT teach ..."
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
</x-rich>
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