From: Jason Hare (parousia_occ@yahoo.com)
Date: Tue Feb 22 2000 - 16:06:36 EST
You have stated yourself: << even in English the term "word" does not
always
signify a series of letters bounded by spaces on either side. >>
If that is true, and I agree, then why the disagreement at all about what
hO LOGOS refers to in John 1:1? It is not just a reference to the "Word"
as in a small unit of speech, but the whole council of God. Jesus is God's
wisdom and "message" to this world. He is God's Word to mankind. Can it
be better put?
Jason
On 02/22/00, "Polycarp66@aol.com" wrote:
> In a message dated 2/22/2000 3:26:06 PM Central Daylight Time,
> scmiller@www.plantnet.com writes:
>
> <<
> The only thing I have "against it" (to use your phrase) is simply that it
> is possible that the English term "utterance" might do a better job of
> expressing the author's intent at John 1:1 than the English term "word."
>
> Also, I suspect that, even in other passages where we find the English term
> "word," it does not refer to a "word" (in its narrow sense) but is most
> commonly used metaphorically. For example, at Mark 2:2, we find: << ... and
> he was speaking the word to them >> (Mark 2:2d NRSV). I think it fairly
> obvious that here TON LOGON refers to a spoken message. Mark 2:2d might be
> better translated as: "... and he was speaking the message to them."
> >>
>
> Of course, the rub is that even in English the term "word" does not always
> signify a series of letters bounded by spaces on either side. This is true in
> every language. To prescriptively limit the use of "word" to a written form
> is to disable the language much as those who wish to impose a politically
> correct understanding of the word "man" and substitute "person."
>
> gfsomsel
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