From: Jason Hare (parousia_occ@yahoo.com)
Date: Wed Feb 23 2000 - 13:25:54 EST
There is definite value in understanding the pull of Hebraisms on the NT
Greek syntax. Often times we get non-traditional (but not incorrect) Greek
constructions in the NT that are perfectly explainable from the point of
view of a Jew. For example, take Titus 2:11-13:
« {11} EPEFANH GAR H CARIS TOU QEOU SWTHRIOS PASIN ANQRWPOIS {12}
PAIDEUOUSA hHMAS, hINA ARNHSAMENOI THN ASEBEIAN KAI TAS KOSMIKAS EPIQUMIAS
SWFRONWS KAI KIKAIWS KAI EUSEBWS ZHSWMEN EN TWi NUN AIWNI, {13}
PROSDECOMENOI THN MAKARIAN ELPIDA KAI EPIFANEIAN THS DOXHS TOU MEGALOU QEOU
KAI SWTHROS hHMWN IHSOU CRISTOU... »
See it? « EPIFANEIAN THS DOXHS TOU MEGALOU QEOU... »
« Appearing of the Glory of the Great God. »
That is an interesting Hebraism. In Hebrew this is a common construction,
because they express things differently. For instance, in a common prayer
(recited after the Shema) it is stated: « Barúch shem kevód malchutó
le'olám va'ed. » (i.e., Blessed the name of the glory of His kingdom
forever and ever) That means "Blessed is the name of His_glorious_kingdom
forever and ever.
So we see from this Hebraism that Titus is probably best translated:
« The glorious appearing of the Great God. » or « The appearing of the
glorious, great God. »
It is interesting to see the light thrown on the text from all different
angles. But as far as the Targums are concerned, they may have been
written later, but what about oral tradition. (This should be reserved for
b-hebrew. So post it there and I'll discuss [I am far from an expert in
Hebrew or those things, but am open for talk.].)
Jason Hare
Ozark Christian College
On 02/23/00, "Pete Phillips <p.m.phillips@cliff.shef.ac.uk>" wrote:
> Randall is quite right to mention the intended interplay between Greek =
> and Jewish/Hebrew ideas and vocabulary in the Prologue - see for example =
> Craig Evans' Word and Glory. I am not sure that it is midrash as such - =
> but then I am no expert as evidently Randall is. Midrash-like =
> structures and midrash-like usage of the Hebrew scriptures can be found =
> throughout Paul and the Gospels and so it should come as no surprise =
> that something similar appears in John. But why? Is it because his =
> audience (people always seem to need to use John to arrive at his =
> community as though that was/is more important than the message he is =
> getting across) is mixed Jewish/Hellenistic or because he is using =
> Hebraeo-Greek thought forms in order to diversify the appeal of his =
> text. Notice that if you think that John's Gospel is Kosher because of =
> verse 1-5 you might think otherwise by the time you get to verse 14 and =
> will have mindblowing doubts by the end of 18!!! He hooks you by using =
> devices like this bilingual pun and then pulls the carpet out from under =
> you (sorry about the mixed metaphor) by telling you who the Messiah =
> really is - compare Jesus methodology with the Samaritan woman. Is that =
> realy midrash?
>
> Pete Phillips
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: yochanan bitan [SMTP:ButhFam@compuserve.com]
> Sent: 23 February 2000 13:10
> To: Biblical Greek
> Cc: b-greek
> Subject: In the beginning midrash/bilingualism
>
> shalom Greek list--I am a little surprised that in an ancient Jewish
> document=20
> you do not raise the question of midrash and what seems to me=20
> quite obvious, skillful wordplay. [update: I just saw that Larry Swain =
> has
> at least mentioned targum and Carl Conrad brought in Jewish 'wisdom'
> connections. The following still holds.]
>
> John is written in Greek, no question for me.
> But he is very conscious of BOTH Jewish and Hellenistic background, =
> writing
> in Greek and very aware of Jewish background.
> For example, in verses 1.2-4 the gospel appropriates and builds=20
> on the ancient Jewish "all-purpose" blessing:
> "that everything has come into being through his word"
> she-hakol nihya bidvaro (See Mishna Beraxot)=20
> (this is somewhat distinctive Hebrew, which makes it hard to miss, even =
> in
> Greek.)
> Of course, John relates this terminology to the Messiah as a Hidush
> 'innovation'.
>
> Now the targums are a post-70 phenomenon, as Qumran's silence testifies
> (except for the prolific Job targum, of course. Cf. LXX Job 42.17, =
> Qumran
> 11 and 4, Gamaliel story.).
> But the targums are a window back into the world of midrash and that =
> world
> was pre-Christian.=20
> (Cf. Paul's reference to the "following" rock, or the joining of "and =
> you
> shall love God" with "and you shall love your friend" Luke 10.27, or
> 'Jannes and Jambres', etc.)
> The targums testify to an old practice of midrashic development and
> circumlocutions using 'word', 'presence' and 'glory', among others, for
> God.=20
> 'Word' in turn goes back to a midrashic connection between Proverbs 8,
> "wisdom and beginning" with Genesis 1 "speaking [cf. 'and he said'] and
> beginning".
> This rabbinic link itself between wisdom, speaking and creation was
> probably enhanced during Hellenistic times because of the Greek =
> discussions
> about logos (cf. Philo for the Jewish connection).
>
> John has very obviously tapped-in on a complex web of relationships =
> that
> have strong ties to both Hellenistic and Jewish terminology.=20
> His skill becomes clear at 1.14 where 'word', 'glory' and =
> shexina/presence
> are mirrored in his Greek words, even a bilingual "homonym" eschenesen
> 'tabernacled'.
>
> A bilingual wordplay, now that's skill. He did it phonetically at 1.14, =
> but
> conceptually, he did it throughout 1.1-18.
>
> An aside for translation: wordplays, in translation theory, are
> acknowledged to be untranslatable. You pick the piece(s) you want and =
> live
> with it. (Actually, that is true for all translation, but I won't =
> belabor
> the point.)
> If you want full communication then you are committed to 'study bibles'.
> Welcome aboard.=20
>
> Maybe the day will come when the Church rediscovers a Synagogue =
> practice:
> relationship between source and translation is never forgotten or
> obliterated. For example, in the English world a synagogue will probably
> provide worshippers with a bi-lingual Hebrew-English edition of the tora
> that includes study notes in English, too. [The synagogue practice =
> presents
> a middle-road between 'translation-only' (the Church) and 'source only'
> (Islam).]=20
> I would be happy with bilingual Greek-XXX(e.g.English) study Bibles (NT)
> and Hebrew-XXX (e.g.English) study Bibles (OT). For precedents, see the
> Socino Hebrew-English readers, or the miqraot gedolot (rabbinic bibles,=20
> maybe too heavy on commentary).
>
> errwsqe
> Randall Buth
>
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