From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Fri Mar 03 2000 - 12:14:57 EST
On Fri, 03 Mar 2000 23:21:19 +1100 Ward Powers <bwpowers@eagles.com.au>
writes:
>
<snip>
> So here is the issue: On what basis (if any) can we conclude that
> John uses PISTEUW in a context such as John 8;30-31 to mean
> some kind of "believing" other than what he means in John 3:15
> -18 (et al.)? That is, to mean a "believing" which is not
> "spirit-generated" but which can be used in reference to people
> described as children of the devil (8:42-44) and who do not belong
> to God (8:47). Are there any other passages where John clearly
> uses PISTEUW in such a way?
>
> I tend to think that when John uses PISTEUW it is in reference to
> saving faith. Do I need to modify this understanding of his use of
> this word?
How about on the basis of the usage of PISTEUW in Jn 2:23-25
where POLLOI EPISTEUSAN EIS TO ONOMA AUTOU, but
where also AUTOS DE IHSOUS OUK EPISTEUEN AUTON
AUTOIS, because (hOTI ... GAR) AUTOS ... GINWSKEN
TI HN EN TWi ANQRWPWi.
Paul Dixon
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