From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sun Mar 12 2000 - 07:36:11 EST
At 7:28 AM -0600 3/12/00, Moon-Ryul Jung wrote:
>Carl,
>
>In this case, do you consider the participial clause
>EXHRAMMENHN EXWN THN XEIRA to be in attribute position
>with respect to the preceding word ANQRWPOS?
>
>The translation "a man with one hand that was withered" suggests that.
No, I'd consider it predicative, but I don't think that all the grammatical
distinctions to be made in the Greek text carry over into English
translation (as I said, I wouldn't quibble with the translation "a man with
a withered hand" for the reason that it adequately conveys in ordinary
English what the Greek says. If I were really being nit-picky, I'd say "a
man who had one hand that was withered"--I do think both participial
phrases are adjectival--but ordinary English doesn't commonly make that
sort of distinction.
>Moon R. Jung
>Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea
>
>
>On 03/12/00, ""Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>" wrote:
>> Let me add a word to this, since this phrase in Mark 3:1 does commonly get
>> translated as "having a withered hand" or even "with a withered hand."
>> While I wouldn't really hassle (much) over either translation, I think the
>> phrasing here is quite deliberate (and I'm one who thinks AMk's own hand is
>> in this pericope rather than that he's citing an older tradition in Greek):
>> the definite article makes the object of ECWN pointed (although that
>> doesn't mean we need to use an English definite article to convey it) and
>> the perfect passive participle EXHRAMMENHN is decidedly in an emphatic
>> predicate position inasmuch as it precedes the participle ECWN. I think
>> more accurate English phrasing to convey it would be "a man with one hand
>> that was withered."
--Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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