From: Jason Hare (parousia_occ@yahoo.com)
Date: Mon Mar 20 2000 - 22:36:48 EST
Greetings
...KAI THN PLEONEXIAN hHTIS ESTIN EIDWLOLATRIA (Col 3:5b)
A significant number of commentators point out that PLEONEXIAN has sexual
overtones to it. BGAD 667d, says "greediness, insatiableness, avarice,
covetousness, lit. a desire to have more." doesn't seem to agree.
1. Does PLEONEXIAN have this in its range of meanings? BGAD doesn't
specifically point out a sexual nuance.
2. Is the sexual understanding to be taken from its inclusion on the vice
list? How does one justify this?
3. Does the presence of the article impact the understanding of this in
terms of its contection with the rest of the verse?
4. If it does not have a sexual nuance to it, why include it?
Thanks
Brian Tucker
music@riverviewcog.org
Riverview, Mi
---------------
You don't think that we can see the same thing in our words "want" or
"desire?" In colloquial English one might say, "I want you" or "I desire
you." This has sexual connotation, but that does not mean that the
normative English definition for "want" or "desire" is sexual. It is only
sexual when a person is its object, and then only part of the time. I can
say to my sister, "Mom wants you. She's calling from the kitchen." That
is not sexual, either, but it has a personal object. I think this word
relates to this kind of thing.
I hope it clarified something. If I'm wrong, let me know. God bless.
Jason Hare
Ozark Christian College
parousia_occ@yahoo.com
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