From: Jonathan Bailey (jonathan.bailey@gmx.de)
Date: Sun Apr 16 2000 - 21:35:22 EDT
<x-charset iso-8859-1>Though I have been studying Greek on my own for a few years, I never really obtained
a high level of proficiency and am just now starting to move along with it as I try to
being a formal education in Greek after moving to Texas, so I would like to ask
forgiveness if some of my questions are dumb. I am really a beginner. Also, most of
my formal education (in the realm of Hebrew/Jewish Studies) has been in German, so
many of my terms will be of my own invention, as my English is a bit rusty.
Anyway, I am wondering about how Hebraisms are handled in modern translations of
the NT. Right now I would like to know what most peoples' opinions about how KAI, a
conjunction that has been attributed semitic use, tends to be treated. I am looking ar
1 John 3:2 and I see that both the KJV and the NASB prefer to translate straight with
"and", with the KJV adding an additional "but" to relieve some of the awkwardness.
Could one treat the KAI as a vav adversative and translate the following clause as
subordinate, i.e. "we are children of God, although what we will be has not yet
appeared"? Would such a use require too much freedom and be considered 'bad
translation'? How common is the consideration of hebraisms used in translation?
How commonly is KAI given these semitic characteristics, for example?
Jonathan Bailey
http://www.geocities.com/athens/column/9707/index.html
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