From: Eszter (ESZTER.ANDORKA@student.kuleuven.ac.be)
Date: Sat Apr 22 2000 - 03:51:59 EDT
Some remarks:
1. Aramaic/Hebrew quote: I agree those who says that Jesus had aramaic as
first language, but we do not really know the Aramaic of Galilee in the
first c. We do not have many witnesses, and even those are - logically -
not vocalised. I think nobody claims to reallyknow how the Ps 22 sounded
in the local dialect of Jesus. It makes very difficult to tell on a
linguistic basis what is Hebrew, what is Aramaic in such a short text.
2. Elijah, v. 35-36: As a consequence of the above mentionned, we are not
in the position to say how the pronounciation of the two words relate to
each other. Most scholars says - as it was written by other list members -
that Elijah and Eloi sound slightly different (and Mt 28 can be an attempt
to make the misunderstanding more plausible). What we can do is to take
the marcan context into account. It is about the various forms of
the mockery of Jesus. I think the marcan text suggests a deliberate,
ironic misunderstanding.
3. Better be carefull with the written targums that we have. Those of the
Psalms are from a much later age than the gospels. We can well suppose
that there were more targums with different tendencies and biases, maybe
on different dialects.
Bye
Eszter
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