From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Fri Apr 28 2000 - 10:48:46 EDT
Dear Eric,
I apologize if someone has already answered this question you asked:
>I Cor. 14:27-28 usually is interpreted/translated to mean that at most two
>or three persons should speak in tongues in a church meeting. But Paul
>keeps the pronouns and verbs in the singular, whereas in vs. 29ff. when he
>similarly discusses prophesying as being also limited to "two or three,"
>he uses plural nouns and verbs. So, is it possible to translate or
>interpret vs. 27-28 as meaning something like only one person speaking in
>tongues, but that same person is asked to stop after giving at most two or
>three
messages/utterances (or maybe 2 or 3 phrases or even words) before his
words are "interpreted" (either by him or someone else)?
It seems to me that the difference between the singular in verse 27 and the
plural in verse 29 is simply stylistic. There are no theological
implications for the handling of tongues versus prophesy. Paul starts in
verse 27 with TIS (someone) and so stays with the singular in verse 28.
Paul in verse 29 starts with the plural PROFHTAI, but note that he uses the
singular in verse 30.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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