From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Sat May 13 2000 - 11:14:13 EDT
Dear Dmitriy,
You ask:
>Could you please explain to me the syntax of 1Cor 7:35? In phrase TOUTO DE
>PROS TO hUMWN AUTWN SUMFORON LEGW , OUC hINA BROCON hUMIN EPIBALW, ALLA
>PROS TON EUSCHMON KAI EUPAREDRON TWi KURIWi APERISPASTWS, as I understand,
>APERISPASTWS is an adverb. Where then is the verb it describes? Or this
>adverb is about LEGW? But I haven't met any translation that would
>understand it in this way.
An adverb does not have to modify a verb. It can modify another adverb, or
an adjective. BAG, s.v. EUPAREDROS and s.v. APERISPATWS, translates PROS
TON EUPAREDRON TWi KURIWi APERISPASTWS as "that you might be devoted to the
Lord without distraction." The lexicon puts the Greek into comfortable
English. The words are actually not a verbal clause but a prepositional
phrase. Let me translate 1 Cor 7:35 literally: " But this for your own
profit I say, not that a noose I might put upon you, but for the (thing)
proper and constant towards the Lord undistractedly."
The words after "but" are all a prepositional phrase with modifiers. The
basic phrase is PROS TON EUSCHMON KAI EUPAREDRON, which modifies LEGW
adverbially, showing the purpose of the speaking. Then TWi KURIWi modifies
EUSCHMON KAI EUPAREDRON as a dative of interest or reference. In English we
would say that "towards the Lord" is an adjectival modifier of the object
of the preposition, here probably TON EUSCHMON KAI EUPAREDRON. Then
APERISPATWS modifies the whole preceeding, adverbial prepositional phrase.
Yours.
Harold Holmyard
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