From: Peter Clark (peter_clark47@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed May 17 2000 - 03:32:44 EDT
<x-flowed>In Isaiah 7:14 the LXX translator uses the imperative KALESEIS but Mtt's
citation of this passage in 1:23 he uses KALESOUSIN. What could account for
this modification and are there other examples of this in the NT?
Peter Clark
Religious and Theological Studies
Cardiff University, UK
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