From: Suedaleg@aol.com
Date: Sat May 27 2000 - 01:50:09 EDT
A week ago I was told that XARIN in this verse is used as a preposition. I
have been thinking about this and trying to assimilate the concept.
TWN PARABASEWN XARIN PROTETEQH . . .
I looked XARIN up in my dictionary and it did define it as such; an
accusative used as a preposition. meaning "as a favor to; because of ".
If such is the use here, is PARABASEWN (gen plur ) the object of the
proposition ("as a favor for, or because of transgressions") or should we
seek an unspoken object (them? us? you?)? The tricky part of the
construction is the apprent object (at least to the NKJV translators) is that
the object precedes the preposition. (Does this make it a "suf-position"?
Sorry, could not resist the temptation to pun.) In English we sometimes put
the preposition at the end of the sentance (just to irk our grammar teachers)
but it always has a clear object at the beginning of the sentance. After all
we would not say "Up to what are you?" ( unless your name is Yoda). Is this
construction similar? are there other examples? Unless I learn something
solid I may continue to translate this as " It was added as a grace to {us}
because of transgressions"
Thanks for yuor help understanding this structure.
PS: I will invest in a good lexicon as soon as I can afford it. Thanks.
Dale Greenlee
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