From: B.J. Williamson (hellen_ic@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Jun 21 2000 - 15:48:42 EDT
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Lucky:
Carl wrote:
----
So far as John 1:6 is concerned, I would say there's an implicit contrast
between 1:6 EGENETO ANQRWPOS APESTALMENOS PARA QEOU and 1:14 KAI hO LOGOS
SARX EGENETO; I think John means to set off John "the Baptist" from the
incarnate Word by (1) signaling his importance as a divinely-sent emissary
while at the same time (2) sharply distinguishing him from Jesus as Word and
Light.
------
I would perhaps add that this "implicit" contrast of verse 14 (concerning
the LOGOS) has an "explicit" contrast with verse 1 as well, where we are
told that the LOGOS EN ARCHi HN.
That is, in verse 1, we are told that the LOGOS was existing (HN) at the
point of this indefinite "beginning." (In fact, you could pick ANY
beginning, and the statement regarding the LOGOS here would be true.) And in
verse 14, the LOGOS became (EGENETO) flesh. The contrast then being that the
LOGOS was in existence PRIOR TO this "beginning," while the LOGOS became
("took on") flesh AFTER this "beginning."
Your question as to John's purpose of "introducing the Christ" seems to be
"explicitly" stated in the next verse (7) from the one you originally cited,
hOUTOS HLQEN EIS MARTURIAN. Here, John's purpose is to bear witness of the
Light, himself not being that Light.
Respectfully,
B. J. Williamson
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