From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sun Jul 02 2000 - 14:29:48 EDT
At 5:30 PM +0100 7/2/00, Noel Fitzpatrick wrote:
>Did Jesus say SU LEGEIS?
>
>I read with interest in Moulton's Grammar "That Jesus Himself and
>the Apostles regularly used Aramaic is beyond question, but that
>Greek was also at command is almost equally certain." (J H
>Moulton 'A Grammar of New Testament Greek', Vol 1, p 8, 3rd
>Edition). Thus it appears that Jesus would have spoken in Greek
>to the centurion (Matthew 8:13) and to Pilate, as recounted in all
>four Gospels.
>
>In all the synoptic gospels it is reported that he said SU LEGEIS
>(Mt. 27:11, Mk. 15:2 and Lk. 23:3) In John Jesus said more to
>Pilate (18:34, 36 and 37) In verse 37 Jesus said SU LEGEIS hOTI
>BASILEUS EIMI.
>
>Thus all four gospels report that Jesus said SU LEGEIS. Therefore
>can one take it that these really are the actual words of Jesus?
You will find "absolute and apodictic" assertions about all sorts of points
from all sorts of scholars, but I would suggest that you look at the
evidence for what they claim rather than at who makes the claim.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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