From: Kevin D. Williford (KandSWilliford@aol.com)
Date: Sat Aug 05 2000 - 12:04:56 EDT
On 08/05/00, ""David McKay" <musicke@ozemail.com.au>" wrote:
> I have been reading some seemingly novel interpretations of Scripture at
> www.jarom.net One of these is that KATA PROQESIN in Romans 8:28 refers to
> the purpose of TOIS AGAPWSIN TON QEON and not to God's purpose, which is the
> sense of all translations of this verse I have ever seen.
>
> The argument given is that "his" which is supplied in every translation I
> have seen, is not in the Greek.
>
> How do we know that Paul is referring to God's purpose? Is there a hint in
> the Greek?
David,
I am by no means a Greek Scholar, but here is the opinion of a student, for
what it may be worth to you.
The text is not specific regarding whose purpose. TOIS KATA PROQESIN
KLHTOIS OUSIN is in apposition to TOIS AGAPWSIN TON QEON (i.e. "The ones
loving God ... namely the ones being called according to purpose) Whose
purpose is being left unspecified. So they are correct in arguing "his" is
not in the text. However, I believe the CONTEXT make it abundantly clear
whose purpose is in view. The "his"is not a problem because of the actions
of the next verse. Clearly it is God who "foreknew," "predestined," and
"conformed." On the basis of God's actions in verse 8.29, I think the
context demands that it be "HIS purpose" in verse 8.28, although the AV is
correct in italicising "his."
Kevin D. Williford
M.Div. Student
Midwestern Baptist Theological Seminary
Kansas City, MO
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