From: Maurice A. O'Sullivan (mauros@iol.ie)
Date: Thu Aug 10 2000 - 15:06:13 EDT
<x-flowed>At 17:19 10/08/00, Rick H Duggin wrote:
>Or, is this something that cannot be decided by
>the customary use of the adjective in the NT, but
>must be decided entirely on the basis of its context
>in 2 Pt.2:1?
Of course, this is a hapax in the NT and furthermore, as the TDNT points
out, is never found outside Christian usage.
It goes on to say that :
>>>>
The YEUDO< suggests both that the claim of the men concerned is false and
also that their teaching is erroneous, so that in every respect they are a
perversion of the Christian DIDASKOLOS since they reject the claim of Jesus
to dominion over their whole lives . We are pointed in the same direction
in Pol., 7, 1,
" For whosoever does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh,
is antichrist; and whosoever does not confess the testimony of the cross,
is of the devil; and whosoever perverts the oracles of the Lord to his own
lusts, and says that there is neither a resurrection nor a judgment, he is
the first-born of Satan. "
<<<<<<
7.2 of The Epistle of Polycarp then begins:
Wherefore, forsaking the vanity of many, and their false doctrines,......
[ YEUDODIDASKALIA ]
Hope this helps.
Maurice
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros@iol.ie
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