From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (jgibson000@home.com)
Date: Wed Aug 23 2000 - 10:25:15 EDT
Jonathan Robie wrote:
>
> In the LXX, many uses of "the son of man" are in apposition to "man", and
> seem to be used for rhetorical effect. In fact, up to Ezekiel, this is the
> only use of "son of man" that I see. Excuse the English, but I didn't want
> to type in the Greek for all of these. I checked a little less than half of
> them to make sure that the relevant phrases are reflected in the LXX:
[much snipped]
You may wish to note when you look to the OT use that each instance of the phrase is
anarthrous. The expression in the Gospels is, as C.F.D. Moule has emphasized over and
over again (I saw him do this once in a discussion with Geza Vermes), is diectic. So
save for Daniel, the OT instances may be irrelevant. And the 'hO' may make all the
difference in the world for understanding the term's significance (see Moule's
_Christology_).
In any case, I would suggest that List Members have a look at Tom Wright's discussion
of the term in his _Jesus and the Victory of God_ where the possible
metaphorical/idiomatic nature of the expression, at least as it is used in Mark 13 and
in the confession of Jesus before the High Priest, is explored.
Yours,
Jeffrey Gibson
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
e-mail jgibson000@home.com
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