From: Jonathan Robie (Jonathan.Robie@SoftwareAG-USA.com)
Date: Thu Aug 24 2000 - 18:57:28 EDT
<x-flowed>At 09:50 AM 8/24/00 +0000, Robert L. Garringer wrote:
>Is there any possibility that the participle in the latter part of Mt 5:32
>and 19:9 could indicate that the woman is the one who had initiated
>divorce? If so the thought would parallel Mk 10:12 which simply repeats for
>the woman the prohibition that had been stated for the man in the previous
>verse.
Please cite the texts to which you refer, in Greek. Here are the relevant
verses:
Matthew 5:32 EGW DE LEGW hUMIN hOTI PAS hO APOLUWON THN GUNAIKA AUTOU
PAREKTOS LOGOU PORNEIAS POEIEI AUTHN MOICEUQHNAI, KAI hOS EAN APOLELUMENHN
GAMHSHi MOICATAI.
Matthew 19:9 LEGW DE hUMIN hOTI hOS AN APOLUSHi THN GUNAIKA AUTOU MH EPI
PORNEIAi KAI GAMHSHi ALLHN MOICATAI.
In both verses, it seems fairly clear that the person who "divorces his
wife" (APOLUSHi THN GUNAIKA) is not the woman, but the man. I assume that
the participle you refer to is APOLELUMENHN, from Matthew 5:32. This
participle is feminine, and I think it does refer to the divorced woman.
Now the interesting question is whether the form of APOLELUMENHN is to be
taken as middle or passive. I'm not familiar enough with the usage of the
word to say. From the context, I assume that the passive interpretation is
to be taken - "and anyone who marries a woman who has been repudiated
commits adultery". My guess is that the woman in that clause did not
initiate the divorce. Does anybody want to argue that this verb should be
taken as a middle, rather than a passive?
Jonathan
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