From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Aug 30 2000 - 11:29:39 EDT
At 11:12 AM -0400 8/30/00, Jim West wrote:
>i find that in rabbinic literature the term <gk>euriskei</gk> is rendered
><heb>ashkath</heb> carrying the connotation of a confrontation. im
>wondering if the greek word euriskw bears such a connotation as well. and
>even if it doesnt, is it possible to render it here as if it did since john
>is writing to jews and would no doubt expect them to hear the word on their
>own terms.
No. IF he were writing to Jews (only) and (no doubt) were expecting them to
hear the word on their own terms, I would have thought he'd be writing to
them in their own language. There IS a limit, I think, beyond which you
can't push this proposition that it's an accident that the NT corpus
survives only in Greek and that it fundamentally reflects Jewish tradition
alone.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
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