From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Sat Sep 16 2000 - 11:31:46 EDT
Looks like I also sent this one directly to Jim, but not the List.
Greg
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From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Full-name: GregStffrd
Message-ID: <f7.2c45a75.26f43d8d@aol.com>
Date: Fri, 15 Sep 2000 23:05:49 EDT
Subject: Re: [b-greek] Re: New Testament Jehovah Quotes
To: jwest@highland.net
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In a message dated 09/15/2000 9:52:05 AM Pacific Daylight Time,
jwest@highland.net writes:
<< >Would anyone be able to supply me with a list of New Testament passages
>which quote Old Testament passages mentioning Jehovah? Or could you tell me
>a way to find those passages?
there are none-
1) because the name Jehovah is not one which occurs in the OT. God's name
there is Yahweh. >>>>
Actually, Jim, that is not true. "Yahweh" comes from the reported Samaritan
pronunciation IABE (as given by Theodoret in the 5th century CE). The Jewish
usage is variously presented as IA, IAW, IAOUE, IAOU, IEUW, IAH, IAWIA, and
others, in various ancient documents, in Greek. Indeed, even non-Jewish
historians note that form used by the Jews is, not IABE, but IAW. Diodorus
wrote that Moses "referred his laws to the god who is invoked as IAW"
(1.321).
The linguistic evidence, in Hebrew, is also decidedly on the side of a three
(or two and a half) syllable form of the divine name. We have, I believe,
discussed this here, before.
<<< Jehovah is a mistransliteration based on unfamilairity
with the massoretic notations on the divine name. >>>>
Again, this is not true. Can you give the basis for your view, here, citiing
specific linguistic evidence from the Masoretic text?
<<<< 2) the question regarding quotations from the OT is quite complex. Did
the
author quote the Hebrew Text? Or the Septuagint? Or did he render the
verse from memory? Did he freely translate the Hebrew into his own Greek?
Thus, before you can know which passages use the divine name you need to
know which source text they quote. >>>
This is a fine point, and I agree with you. But unless they chose to
retranslate the Hebrew or depart from the sources that were available to them
per the evidence in our possession, they quoted sources that used some form
of the dvine name, not surrogates such as THEOS or KURIOS.
<<<< 3) the divine name is never rendered by a greek transliteration in the
NT.
It is translated Kyrios. never any other way. >>>>
That is partly true in reference to the NT mss. we have in our possession
today, which like the later Christian LXX mss. do not use the divine name.
The question is, why? What happened to the LXX, which act is reflected in the
NT quotations of the OT?
Of course, the NT of Revelation does use IA (= "Yah") when writing ALLHLOUIA,
which Edwin Hatch and Henry A. Redpath, A Concordance to the Septuagint, 2d
ed. (Grand Rapids: Baker, 1998), 73, says is found in Aquila and Symmachus in
their translations of Ps 67(68):5 and Isa 12:2. Aquila also uses it twice in
Isa 38:11. Theodotion uses Ia in Ps 67(68):5, Isa 12:2 and twice in Isa
38:11. The fifth column of Orgien's Hexapla also uses IA in Ps 67(68):5.
The above is only the tip of a mountain of evidence that, for some reason, is
routinely ignored by leading OT and NT scholars.
Greg Stafford
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