From: Dan Parker (stoixein@SDF.lonestar.org)
Date: Sun Sep 17 2000 - 17:33:30 EDT
On page 252 Daniel Wallace in his Exegetical Syntax says he considers
ANNGELOS QEOU to be definite along with all usages of ANNGELOS KURIOU
in both the OT and the NT.
The second hWS in the verse is generally taken as adverbial. If the
ANNGELOS QEOU is definite, does this mean that the hWS is comparative
and that this identifies "the angel of the Lord" as Christ Jesus at
Galatians 4:14? I cannot see any other way to interpret this verse
if we accept that ANNGELOS QEOU is definite.
Are there any grammatical considerations that would prevent understanding
the second hWS at Galatians 4:14 as comparative?
Sincerely,
Dan
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Dan Parker stoixein@sdf.lonestar.org
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