From: Patrick Narkinsky (patrick@extremehope.org)
Date: Mon Nov 06 2000 - 00:49:25 EST
Dear Big Greeks:
I came across the following statement in F.F. Bruce's "Canon of
Scripture." I'm especially interested in the footnote included.
When we speak of 'the scriptures' we mean 'the sacred writings' as
distinct from other writings: to us 'scripture' and writing' are
separate words with distinct meanings. But in Hebrew and Greek
one word does duty for both 'writing' and 'scripture': in these
languages 'the scriptures' are simply 'the writings' -- that is
to say, 'the writings' _par excellence_. As we shall see,
sometimes this involves a measure of ambiguity: does the word in
this or that context mean 'scripture' in particular or 'writing'
in general? {2}
{2} Compare the ambiguity of the beginning of 2 Tim 3:16. Does
_graphe_ here mean 'scripture' (in the special sense) or
'writing' (in the general sense)? If the former (which is more
probable), the translation is 'Every scripture is divinely
inspired (God-breathed) and profitable...'; if the latter, the
translation is 'Every divinely inspired writing is also
profitable...'
Would anyone care to comment on the legitimacy of the second translation?
I'm far too little a Greek to examine this competently. I'm not so much
interested in whether it is *correct* (even Bruce says that it isn't) as
to whether it is conceivable.
Thanks,
Patrick
--
Patrick Narkinsky patrick@extremehope.org
"It is not as a child that I believe and confess Jesus Christ. My Hosanna is
born of a furnace of doubt." -- Fyodor Dostoevski
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