From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Tue Nov 07 2000 - 06:13:56 EST
Heath R. Curtis wrote:
>Is there any concensus out there about the antecedent of hWi
>in I Pt 1:6? I've considered taking the relative as neuter thus
>leaving the possibilities as the preceeding infinitive
>APOKALUFQHNAI or verses 3-5 as a whole. Or
>perhaps it's masculine with the antecedent being QEOS
>or KAIRWi ESXATWi. Any responses to any of these
>four options, or proposals for other options are welcomed.
Since no one else responded, I thought I would supply at least part of the
text.
1Pet 1:5-6A (GNT) TOUS EN DUNAMEI QEOU FROUROUMENOUS DIA PISTEWS EIS
SWTHRIAN hETOIMHN APOKALUFQHVAI EN KAIRWi ESXATWi. EN hWi AGALLIASQE
According to Gramcord, hWi is masculine and to me would seem most
naturally to go with EN KAIRWi ESXATWi, yet I have no proof of that beyond
Gramcord's parsing. Alford says, "6.] In which (i.e. EN KAIRWi ESXATWi:
the EN hWi is temporal, EN bearing the same sense in the resumption as it
did at the end of ver. 5, from which it is resumed. Such is our Ap.'s
manner, to resume, in proceeding further, the thing or person just
mentioned, in the same sense as before: cf. vv. 5, 8, 10. Or, EN hWi may
mean, 'at which,' 'wherein,' as ch. iv.4: the KAIROS ESXATOS being not the
time, but object, of your joy. Those who regard AGALLIASQE as strictly
present, understand EN hWi as in ch. iv.4, but refer it to the whole
preceding: so Calv.,"
Hope this was helpful.
Sola Gratia,
Jay Adkins
Always Under Grace!
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