From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sat Nov 11 2000 - 20:18:48 EST
At 12:49 AM +0000 11/12/00, Michael Haggett wrote:
>More generally: is this a unique example, or do more otherwise identical
>verbs have different accentuation according to mood? (I know the present
>and future tense of liquid verbs is differentiated). It would, for example,
>be very useful if second person plural imperatives were differentiated from
>their indicative equivalent ... but they aren't. If this verb can be
>differentiated, why not others?
I've already responded concerning the two accentuations of FOBHQHTE; I
don't think, however, that one can so simply generalize; the subjunctive
quite often has a circumflex precisely because it is a contraction of a
stem vowel and an W or H; but note the difference between subjunctive
present of LUW where the stem is simply LU- and the subjunctive present of
POIEW, where the stem is POIE- Here I'm using beta-code convention to
indicate circumflex over a vowel by = following the vowel or diphthong in
question, acute over a vowel by / following the vowel or diphthong in
question:
LU/-W POIE/-W --> POIW=
LU/-HiS POIE/-HiS --> POIHi=S
LU/-Hi POIE/-HI --> POIHi=
same in the plural:
LU/-HTE POIE/-HTE --> POIH=TE
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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