[b-greek] Re: hOUTOS/EKEINOS

From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun Dec 03 2000 - 21:19:13 EST


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Roger:

You asked:

-------
>Based on this, the person argues that Jesus, by using the 'near'
>demonstrative, hOUTOS, in Matt 24:34 could only have been referring to
>those
>to whom he was physically speaking. Had Jesus wanted to refer to a future
>generation, he would have had to use the word EKEINOS.
-------

This passage has been controversial from the time Matthew's
ink dried. As to the validity of the argument you encountered, the
answer is: No. But this is quite often the case with theologically
charged arguments.

When this individual states that hOUTOS could "only" have been referring to
those to whom he was physically speaking, he has failed to give any
consideration
to the very time element introduced in this parable. The time element, to
which
one might say hOUTOS is "near," is related to the fulfillment of the
prophesied
events presented in the parable.

When those events (branch putting forth leaves and the arrival of summer)
finally
emerge in fulfillment of this parable, then, and only then, is the time
element "specified."
At that time, hOUTOS could very well indicate that those near in time to the
fulfillment of these prophesied events will not pass.

Others argue that hH GENEA hAUTH refers to a particular race, for example,
the
Jewish race (and that the Jewish race will not pass). But I am getting a
little
away from your original question.

Hope this helps,

Mark Wilson

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