From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Wed Dec 27 2000 - 11:13:04 EST
Dear Steve,
If Greek grammar supposedly equates the questions in Luke 1:18 and 1:34,
then it is time for somebody to clarify the context. Ben did that.
Zacharias was asking for a sign that the predicted event would occur, since
circumstances seemed against it. It is not really possible to read his
comments without inferring doubt on his part.
Mary was asking how the prophecy would occur. Her request for clarification
as to the means of fulfillment could imply doubt on her part, but it is not
necessary to read the words that way.
The chastisement of Zacharias and the absence of chastisement for Mary
suggests that in fact Mary's words did not imply doubt as to the truth of
the prophecy.
I do not see that we can divorce the interpretation of Greek from context.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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