From: Randall Buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Sun Jan 07 2001 - 16:41:16 EST
shalom,
>The word Philistine means "belonging to [the land of] Palestina. Palestine
>was named after one of the tribes of the Sea Peoples called the PRST
>(through an orthographic change this would be changed to PLST) who settled
>in that area/the Sea Peoples came from Crete and tried to settle in Egypt
>but were repelled by Ramesses III ca. 1190 B. C. They then settled along
the
>coast of what today is called Palestine.
Maybe 'belonging to [the land/tribe] of Philistia' would be more accurate.
(i.e. Palestine is/was not Philistia, see below.)
With questions on etymology and historical roots
I suppose one should add a note on Greek and potential anachronisms.
While some Greek writers did occasionally refer to the coast of
Kana`an/Yehud/Israel/Ioudaia with variants of Philistia,
the name PALESTINA only entered the country lists in 135 AD/CE as a Roman
renaming of the province of Judea after the BarKosiba rebellion.
In line with this, you will notice that in NT (=1st century Greek) only two
names are used:
Judea (Lk 3.1) and
'land of Israel'(Mt2.21, 10.23?).
Which is of some anecdotal interest for the list.
For more infomation, a fairly extensive article on the Greek names for
Philistia and Israel was written by Louis Feldman in the early 1990s.
Randall Buth
Chair, Hebrew Language
Jerusalem University College
Buth@jerusalemschool.org
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