From: One of the McKays (musicke@ozemail.com.au)
Date: Mon Jan 08 2001 - 20:09:15 EST
Is there a similar instance in the NT of one person using one word, while
t'other consistently uses a synonym? [I know, of course, Jesus finally uses
Peter's word].
I haven't noticed a passage quite like it, yet.
And if there is a distinction, it would seem likely to me also, that Peter
intends to raise the stakes, and says he loves Jesus truly, madly, deeply,
or something of the kind.
Makes a lot more sense than the other way round. I can't imagine the Peter
we find in the Gospels saying "No, I only love you a little bit!" Can you?
But the problem is that we have all been taught about this special AGAPH
love, and it is hard to get away from that.
Amazing how much interest this little passage raises. Is it because it is
fairly easy to at least get some kind of a handle on?
Or is it because of all those sermons?
David McKay
musicke@ozemail.com.au
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