From: Dan Hubbell (ntc@churchrestoration.org)
Date: Fri Jan 12 2001 - 07:24:47 EST
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<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=4><STRONG>I am new to this site and therefore this
question may not be appropriate or may have been discussed before, if so, please
disregard.</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial><STRONG>In studying the greek word EKKLHSIA, I was
wondering if anyone has a thought or discernment about why Jesus may have chosen
this particilar word rather than other existing Hebrew or Greek words for
assembly, congregation, synagogue, temple, etc.</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial><STRONG>In His Name,</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
<DIV> </DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial><STRONG>Dan Hubbell</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial><STRONG>His servant</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial><STRONG>From "a hired house" in Winnsboro,
Texas</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial><STRONG><A
href="http://www.churchrestoration.org">http://www.churchrestoration.org>
</STRONG></FONT></DIV>
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