From: Iver Larsen (alice-iver_larsen@wycliffe.org)
Date: Wed Jan 24 2001 - 03:58:30 EST
Dear Rolf,
Thanks for quoting Comrie's "definition" of markedness. I am adding my
perspective below.
> Dear Iver,
>
> Just a word in defense of Wes' use of "markedness". Bernhard Comrie writes
> ("Aspect 1976, p. 111): "The intuition behind the notion markedness in
> linguistics is that, where we have an opposition with two or more members
> (e.g. perfective versus imperfective), it is often the case that one member
> of the opposition is felt to be more usual, more normal, less specific than
> the other (in markedness terminology, it is unmarked ther others are
> marked."
>
> It is true that the markedness terminology usually is not applied to how a
> single Greek word is translated or understood by English readers, but in
> this discussion where the English words in the entry ARCH in BDAG are
> handled as if they were different *senses* of ARCH, such a terminology is
> appropriate.
My problem was that the notion of markedness was apparently used to a priori
exclude certain potential senses of a word. I don't think that is an appropriate
use of the markedness concept.
This can be illustrated by any word with more than one sense. Let's take the
word "first". What is the primary meaning? Is it "before all others in time"
(This is the first sense listed in my Oxford Universal Dictionary.) Other senses
listed are: "preceding all others in serial order", "foremost in position",
"foremost in rank, importance or excellence." When I mention "the First Lady" do
you go through the various possible senses starting with the primary one? Or do
you deduce the meaning of "first" from the fact that it co-occurs with "lady"?
Is it up to me to prove that this does not refer to Eve - as someone who has
heard about markedness would have expected?
> The meaning of ARCH is not identical with the English glosses in BDAG, and
> neither is it found in the context or the cotext, but it existed as a
> concept in the minds of Greek-speaking persons who had the same
> presupposition pool.
> When we today mention "the senses of a word" or "its primary meaning" and
> base this on the modern English presupposition pool,which is completely
> different from the first-century Greek one, from the point of view of
> applied linguistics we are "speaking into the air" ( 1 Kor 14:9).
>
> However, this is the normal way of speaking, and those hearing or reading
> get some of the sense. So when we use this 'not completely correct way of
> speaking' and focus on the different English glosses, the notion of
> markedness can be helpful for our understanding.
I agree with the notion of "presupposition pool" but not necessarily with your
definition of it. (I am not sure what your definition is.) I believe we need to
distinguish between different elements in that pool. One element is the semantic
range of a word. Few words have a specific meaning. Some have a small area
(circle) of meaning, others have a large circle. These circles only partially
overlap from one language to another. So, the area of meaning of ARCH includes
parts of the areas of meanings of the English words "first, authority, rule,
beginning". In the example above, knowing the possible senses of "first" defines
the semantic range of the word. Another element is the linguistic co-text (that
"first" modifies "lady"). A third element is the extra-linguistic encyclopaedic
information pool (knowing that First Lady is a term conventionally used to refer
to the wife of the president.) All elements come into play in understanding any
utterance, but they are distinct elements. Someone might understand the semantic
range of "first" and "lady" and still fail to understand the meaning of the
expression, if he does not have the needed extra-linguistic encyclopaedic
information.
Iver Larsen
Kolding, Denmark
alice-iver_larsen@wycliffe.org
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