From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Fri Jan 26 2001 - 17:17:23 EST
<x-flowed>
James 1:13 follow-up
hO GAR QEOS APEIRASTOS ESTI KAKWN
An offlist response suggested this translation for
this troublesome clause:
"because God does not tempt in an evil way (evilly, KAKWN)"
Now I am back to this second clause as part of James'
response to the claim "I am being tempted by God."
Claimant: I am being tempted by God
James: (Impossible!) for God does not tempt in an evil manner;
in fact (DE), he himself tempts no one.
I take it then that verses 13 and 14 form a close union and therefore
justify this change from test to tempt. Here, James qualifies why
it is wrong to say I am "tempted" (not tested) by God. Why? Because
God does not tempt in an evil sense (unlike testing for our good).
To date, this is the only suggestion that makes smooth sense
of the awkward, seemingly out of place middle clause.
Any thoughts,
Mark Wilson
_________________________________________________________________
Get your FREE download of MSN Explorer at http://explorer.msn.com
---
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu
</x-flowed>
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:36:49 EDT