From: Wayne Leman (wleman@mcn.net)
Date: Sun Jan 28 2001 - 15:46:10 EST
Steven asked:
> (1) Does any of the major reference grammars mention or approve of this
syntax?
>
> (2) Are there any non-biblical examples of this syntax (such as might be
> found in classical Greek)?
>
> (3) Are there any other biblical examples (in the NT or LXX) of this
syntax?
>
> (4) Does this syntax appear legitimate to you?
>
> (5) Has there been any articles written which attempts to justify or
> discuss this syntax?
Steven, *if* Philemon 5 and Matt. 7:6 were intended to be understood
chiastically, from that I would still not consider chiasmus to be a natural
syntactic form of Greek. I would, instead, regard the syntactic forms as
being borrowed from Hebrew and imposed upon the Greek of the NT by its
Jewish writers. I have read some on the issue of chiasmus in these two
verses and at this point I buy the scholarly arguments (Dr. Black, et al)
that chiasmus was intended. There are a huge number of Semiticisms in the
Greek of the NT. It would, therefore, not surprise me in the least, to see
some Semitic syntactic borrowing, as well as the Semitic lexical and
idiomatic borrowings that we are usually more aware of. The NT is a very
Hebraic document, even though it was not written in the lingua franca of its
day, rather than a Semitic language.
Cheers,
Wayne
---
Wayne Leman
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