[b-greek] Re: The implication of OU ... ALLA in ROm 6:14

From: Moon-Ryul Jung (moon@saint.soongsil.ac.kr)
Date: Sun Jan 28 2001 - 20:09:07 EST


Dear Harold,

Thanks for responding to my post.
my question can be answered without taking position on the addresses of
Romans.
Incidentally, for my experimental re-reading of Romans, I tentatively
assume that Romans was written primarily for Gentiles and deals with
the issues they had in Jewish environment. But that is not an issue here.
   
Moon
Moon-Ryul Jung
Associate Professor
Sogang Univ, Seoul, Korea

> HH: The first problem with this view is that Paul wrote to a church that
> consisted of Jews and Gentiles. He also addresses the Jews in chapter 2,
> for instance. So why should he be addressing only the Gentiles in chapter
> 6, and what signal is there that he is doing so?
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard

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