From: Keith Thompson (keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk)
Date: Tue Feb 13 2001 - 14:05:24 EST
Hi!
Thanks for your replies, but it isn't much clearer to me. The books
David McKay suggested might be helpful, but unfortunately I can't buy
any more at the moment.
The same thing seems to be confusing people in James 2:24, Moon-Ryul
Jung wrote '...the general issue of what OU negates in a given sentence,
the verb or other parts arose. I think this is an important issue. I
hope that the issue can get some attention.'
Also Carl W. Conrad wrote 'And I wonder whether some of the difficulty
here doesn't derive from thinking in terms of English usage rather than
Greek usage, or assuming that they must be identical.'
This is exactly what I want to know. I didn't have any problem with
negation, even in Philippians 2:6 until I read this verse in the New
World Translation. I realise that hARPAGMOS can be translated as 'the
act of seizing' or 'a thing seized', changing the meaning of the verse,
but this isn't what I'm asking about. In the NWT here it's translated as
'a seizure' meaning 'to grasp at something not rightfully his'.
Dennis Hukel wrote 'Since, as you noticed, the OUC comes before the
noun rather than the verb, this emphatically marks the noun as not
true.'
Yet Carl W. Conrad wrote 'the OUC here, although before the noun
hARPAGMON, actually negates the verb hHGHSATO -- although I might be
willing to accept the view that it negates the whole clause.' If it
negates the verb rather than the noun does this change the meaning of
the verse?
People seem to agree that whether the OUC negates only the noun, or the
whole clause that follows the meaning is the same: Jesus 'thought it not
robbery to be equal with God'. The entire verse in the NWT reads, 'who,
although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a
seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.' This to me seems to be
saying exactly the opposite, that Jesus 'thought it robbery to be equal
with God' and did not even consider it!
Is there anything in 'Greek Grammar Beyond The Basics' about negation
in general and how it is used in Greek? (Also is the 'aporetic
nominative' a real category or just a joke?!?)
Keith Thompson (Manchester, UK)
keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk
--
Keith Thompson
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