From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Fri Feb 16 2001 - 21:05:21 EST
At 2:30 PM -0700 2/16/01, Dave Washburn wrote:
>I'm playing with an idea about this verse, and I think the language
>can bear it, but I want to get some additional input. I'm wondering
>if the OUDE, "nor," might have some explanatory force, "that is to
>say." A tentative translation with this sense would be something
>along the lines of "I do not permit a woman to teach, which is to
>say, to assume authority over a man etc." The idea I'm heading for
>is one of arbitrarily placing herself in authority, rather than taking a
>teaching role by mutual consent as seems to be the case with
>Priscilla and Apollos in Acts.
>
>Is this idea about OUDE completely off the wall, or might it have
>some merit? Thoughts?
I personally would not attempt to interpret 1 Timothy 2 in terms of what we
observe in Acts, but to argue for or against doing that gets us into a
discussion of Biblical hermeneutics that is inappropriate to this forum. It
does seem to me, however, that the author of 1 Timothy gets about as
precise as he can get about the role of women in the last verses of chapter
2: while some may view that role as one that is appropriate to women (and
others may question that), it's hard for me to see any suggestion here that
women should play any authoritative role whatsoever. And by that I'm not
saying what I think about this perspective but I'm simply trying to
recognize it for what it seems indeed to be saying.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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