From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Sun Feb 18 2001 - 12:02:24 EST
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Concerning PRESENT Participles, Dr. Wallace's Grammar book, GGBB, pg. 626,
makes the following statement:
"... the present participle is occasionally subsequent IN A SENSE to the
time of the main verb. This is so when the participle has a telic or result
flavor to it (cf. Eph. 2:14)." [emphasis in the original]
Either this is a typo, Eph. 2:14, or I can not see a present participle in
this verse. Would someone mind taking a quick look at Eph. 2 and surrounding
areas and let me know where to look.
Call it pride, but I sure hope that there is not a present participle as big
as Dallas sitting right there in 2:14!! :o )
Thank you,
Mark Wilson
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