[b-greek] Re: Eph. 2:14

From: CEP7@aol.com
Date: Sun Feb 18 2001 - 15:04:17 EST



In a message dated 2/18/01 11:03:19 AM, emory2oo2@hotmail.com writes:

<< Concerning PRESENT Participles, Dr. Wallace's Grammar book, GGBB, pg. 626,
makes the following statement:


"... the present participle is occasionally subsequent IN A SENSE to the
time of the main verb. This is so when the participle has a telic or result
flavor to it (cf. Eph. 2:14)." [emphasis in the original]

Either this is a typo, Eph. 2:14, or I can not see a present participle in
this verse. Would someone mind taking a quick look at Eph. 2 and surrounding
areas and let me know where to look.

Call it pride, but I sure hope that there is not a present participle as big
as Dallas sitting right there in 2:14!! :o )
>>

It should be Eph 2:15, referring to POIWN

Charles E. Powell, Ph.D.
(h) cep7@aol.com
(w) cpowell@dts.edu
(h) 972-231-4166
(w) 214-841-3763

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