From: Iver Larsen (alice-iver_larsen@wycliffe.org)
Date: Wed Feb 21 2001 - 05:23:20 EST
>
> Mark,
> >
> > Acts 2:14a
> >
> > STAQEIS DE hO PETOS SUN TOIS hENDEKA EPHREN THN QWNHN AUTOU KAI APEFQEGXATO
> > AUTOIS
> >
> >
> > Only a few verses earlier, Luke notes in verse 4 that KAQWS TO
> PNEUMA EDIDOU
> > APOFQEGGESQAI AUTOIS.
> >
> > Would it seem that Luke is implying that the speech Peter stands up to give
> > was
> > given in similar fashion as those earlier utterances of Acts 2, namely, was
> > Peter "speaking in tongues" as he uttered this speech?
> >
> I tend to doubt it. The word simply means "something to say."
> The only thing the word would possibly indicate is that the Spirit
> was giving him the message, but he doesn't seem to be speaking
> in tongues here. My own speculation is that Peter gave the
> speech in either his native tongue or Greek, and the others, via
> their speaking in tongues, translated the speech as it went along.
> But I won't go to the wall for that idea :-)
>
Now, that's a novel understanding of Acts 2:14 from 2:4 - LALEIN hETERAIS
GLOSSAIS. It is quite impossible to discuss glossolalia without straying into
theology, so I only suggest that people look up the concept in a good dictionary
or, better, ask someone who has experienced it. I could discuss it off-list, if
you want.
Iver
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