From: Matthew W. Farrell (mwfarrell@mindex.com)
Date: Fri Apr 06 2001 - 10:39:10 EDT
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Carsten Schmelzer wrote:
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<font face="Arial"><font size=-1>hello,</font></font> <font face="Arial"><font size=-1>in
jesus quotation of the commandments he uses very frequently the 2nd person
singular future indicative (i.e.lk 10:27,mat 22:39). why is this form always
translated as an imperative?</font></font><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>"Thou
shalt love thy neighbour as thyself (mat 22:39)". would it not be more
exactly to translate: "you will..."?</font></font><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>in
about 10 german versions i just found one (walter jens) who translates
not an imperative but "normal future".</font></font><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>is
the futureform normally used as an imperative?</font></font> <font face="Arial"><font size=-1>thank
you,</font></font> <font face="Arial"><font size=-1>storch</font></font> <font face="Arial"><font size=-1>Storch/Carsten,</font></font>
<br><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>the future tense is often used (especially
in the Gospel of Matthew) for a command. According to Wallace, this is
usually in OT quotations ("due to a translation of the Hebrew"). He also
mentions, however, that the future was sometimes used for a command even
in classical Greek. You get the idea even in English ("you will clean your
room" = "clean your room.").</font></font>
<br><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>Blessings,</font></font>
<br><font face="Arial"><font size=-1>Matthew W. Farrell</font></font></blockquote>
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