From: Al Jacobson (abj@the-bridge.net)
Date: Sun Apr 08 2001 - 17:58:08 EDT
Adrian wrote:
<ejn hJmevra/ ojrgh`" kai; ajpokaluvyew" dikaiokrisiva" tou` qeou` 6
<here three nomintive nouns appear with and after the first, the link with
<God at the end of the first seem to make it clear that they all reflect
<different aspects of the same thing- does this help us think James 1.1
could
<be interpreseted in a similar way?
<adrian
You mean "genitive nouns" don't you Adrian?
I have ignored this thread for the most part up to now, so I assume anything
I contribute has been said better by others (or even refuted ably by
others). But I'm tired of working on my normal work so I'll venture my two
cents in this discussion. I do this without having been fed by any of the
real meat that has been offered. See what perverse responses innocent typos
will get you, Adrian?
Strictly speaking, in the phrase you quoted DIKAIOKRISIAS modifies
(describes, further delineates) APOKALUPSEWS. The day is one of wrath and
also one of revelation of the just sentence of God. The dative noun hHMERA
is modified (limited, described, delineated or however you want to say it)
by ORGHS and APOKALUPSEWS. APOKALUPSEWS with its modifiers form one
substantival phrase with respect to hHMERA. (Interestingly, however, in my
version of the Byzantine/Majority text platform there is a KAI between
APOKALUPSEWS and DIKAIOKRISIAS. That WOULD make three genitive nouns
modifying hHMERA.)
In James 1:1, IAKWBOS and its predicate nominative (or some would say "its
appositive" (or whatever), DOULOS, form a structural parentheses of sorts
around the words between. All of the intervening words modify (describe,
explain, etc.,etc.)DOULOS. So one could use the following shorthand (I'm
not a professional linguist as you can plainly see):
Noun/(N or NP) + <genitive>/Modifier/(M)(QEOU)
Conjunction/(C)
<genitive>/M(consisting of three words: KURIOU, IHSOU XRISTOU).
I haven't been following the thread, but I'm guessing the questions have
been whether QEOU AND KURIOU refer to the Father and the Son, respectively
or whether they refer to one and the same person, namely IHSOU XRISTOU.
Perhaps some on the listserve have already cited word studies of
collocations like this in support of their opinions. If the work(s) cited
stud(y)(ies) this very collocation or some very similar collocation of
words, and if it is somehow absolutely, irrefutably clear from some of the
contexts in which the collocation is found that one
interpretation/translation is superior to the other, I certainly think it be
weighty evidence. (Otherwise one might simply have a whole bunch of places
where there is the same question, but not necessarily any insight into the
answer.) My own instinct, based solely at this point upon nothing but what
my years of reading Greek lead me to believe is the natural understanding in
its context, is that QEOU and KURIOU refer to 2 distinct persons.
As to your suggestion that the construction in Romans 2:5 helps, what do you
think? To me it would tend to support the position I have taken in the
preceding paragraph since two separate and distinct concepts are describing
the same noun. In Romans, the day is described as one both of wrath and of
the revelation of God's just verdict. These are two separate aspects of the
day that are not semantically the same thing, since one does not necessarily
imply the other. In James, James is a servant who is both a servant of God
(as Christ in the Gospels often refers to His heavenly Father) and a servant
of the Lord Jesus Christ. Again, one does not necessarily imply the other
from a linguistic or grammatical point of view. Theology enters in here and
that's where I'll stop.
Having said that, I'm certain I could make an argument for the position that
QEOU and KURIOU refer to the same person, namely IHSOU XRISTOU. But I would
not really believe my own argument.
abj
Allen B. Jacobson
2024 2nd Avenue East
Hibbing, MN 55746
218.262.1070
abj@the-bridge.net
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