From: Keith Thompson (keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk)
Date: Tue Apr 17 2001 - 11:27:34 EDT
Hi!
Thanks Mike Sangrey for the reply about Ephesians 3:13 and James 3:4.
The things you wrote, and in another message about discourse analysis
are beyond my understanding. I only looked briefly at the context before
replying to the original message, but studying it in more detail I still
would not have seen the 'which is' referring to the whole of what is
said in verses 2-12. It may be my experience in listening to English all
my life, but if someone says something and then says 'which is', I would
think they were referring only to the thing just mentioned - not giving
up. Or if it said 'which are' I would think of the plural sufferings
just mentioned, is Greek really that different?
I get what you're saying about James 3:4, and authors apparently
violating the rules of Greek grammar to attract the attention of the
readers. For example in the book of Revelation, 'Without even once
saying "It is written", the author is thus able to signal the readers
that he is using the OT'. But are all examples of imperfect grammar in
the New Testament intentional, or are some of them errors? When quoting
from the Old Testament, which they must have known well, they often seem
to get the names of the books wrong! Is it possible that these same
people could make mistakes in what was probably not their first
language? I've noticed even many English speakers (myself included) make
mistakes with English grammar.
I would be interested to learn more about discourse analysis, my
understanding of English seems to be hindering me in fully understanding
what the scriptures say. Are there any good introductions online that
can be saved or downloaded for offline study?
Thanks for any help,
Keith Thompson (Manchester, UK)
keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk
--
Keith Thompson
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