From: Keith Thompson (keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk)
Date: Wed Apr 25 2001 - 09:49:46 EDT
>
>In 1901 Charles Huleat bought 3 papyrus fragments from an antiquities dealer
>in Luxor, Egypt and donated them to Magdalen College at Oxford where they
>remained
>mostly unnoticed until C.H. Roberts published on them in 1953.
>
>C. H. Roberts, "An Early Papyrus of the First Gospel" Harvard Theological
>Review 46,
>(1953) 233-237.
>
>They were designated P64 and dated to the 2nd century CE. The three
>fragments
>contain (recto and verso) segments of Mt 26.
>
>Roberts also published on P67 (Barcelona), 2 fragments containing segments
>of
>Mt 3 and 5 from the same scribe and codex. Another portion of this same
>codex is P4 in
>Paris, also obtained in Luxor.
>
>Carston Thiede and a sensationalist journalist, Matthew d'Ancona published a
>book
>in 1996 titled "Eyewitness to Jesus" claiming that these papyrus fragments
>date to
>the mid 1st century based on their speculative dating of the zierstil
>biblical uncial
>script. An online review can be found at:
>
>
>http://www.bowness.demon.co.uk/thiede.htm
>
>..and Bruce Metzger gives a scathing review in the August 1996 issue of
>Bible Review.
>
>I consider the Thiede/d'Ancona "theory" to be "National Enquirer"
>scholarship.
I presume 'National Enquirer' is like the British 'Sunday Sport'
newspaper. So what I found was actually true but not considered to be
reliable? (Or is it?)
>
>> Also someone mentioned there was 'Greek word play' which is not
>> possible in Hebrew or Aramaic in Matthew 16 and John 21, what exactly is
>> this?
>
>Which verses? Mark 16 is unfinished or lost from 16:9 on and appended
>with a non-Markan ending (several versions). John 21 is also an appendix
>not part of the original.
>
>Jack
>
The specific verses and words weren't mentioned, that is what I was
asking about (I think you've confused Matthew and Mark here). From what
Randall Buth wrote it seems it's about the words 'love' and 'rock', but
he also says this WOULD have been possible in Hebrew or Aramaic. Can
someone clearly explain exactly what the word-play is and why it 'may'
only be possible in Greek?
Thanks,
Keith Thompson (Manchester, UK)
keitht@kneptune.demon.co.uk
--
Keith Thompson
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