From: Randall Buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Wed Apr 25 2001 - 13:29:59 EDT
Keith Thompson
>Can
>someone clearly explain exactly what the word-play is and why it 'may'
>only be possible in Greek?
Assuming I guessed right on 'rock' and 'love' (Mt 16 and Jn 21), anyone who
would argue that it is only possible in Greek must assume impossibility in
Hebrew or Aramaic.
Well, the wordplays are not impossible in Hebrew. petra 'rock' was even a
loanword in rabbinic Hebrew. As for love, there are many words beyond
leehov 'to love', not to mention the possibility of having different tones
of voice reflected in a Greek rendition. However, since I think that John
21 was first penned in Greek I won't play the reconstruction game there. To
do so would just confuse people when they get to where they should be
considering reconstructions, like in sources behind Greek sources to our
gospels.
blessings,
Randall Buth
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