From: Jack Kilmon (jkilmon@historian.net)
Date: Thu Apr 26 2001 - 19:46:03 EDT
----- Original Message -----
From: "Randall Buth" <ButhFam@compuserve.com>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Cc: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Thursday, April 26, 2001 1:01 PM
Subject: [b-greek] Christ's Parlance
I'll take up the following with a couple of points frequently overlooked:
>I am interested in any information on the following: are there textual and
>lexigraphical clues in the Greek NT which lend credence to the view that
>Christ sometimes, often, or always spoke Hebrew in His minstry? Thanks.
>
>Matthew R. Miller [added cwc]
>The same argument applies to "unexplained idioms" like 'binding and
>loosing'. If the words are used without a context that would otherwise
>define them, then they are reflecting the "common understanding" and again,
>Jesus and the gospel sources (at least) assume that people would understand
>what was meant. So what did 'bind and loose' mean in the first century? Who
>was using such idioms, and what is the evidence?
Although I can see a word play in Aramaic between )sr for "bind" (put under
obligation)
and )tr (dismiss), the Peshittah Syriac uses $r) for "loose." I would have
to say that
since the Greek dew and luw has precedents all the way back to Homer, I have
to trust that the translator knew what it meant as in Acts 9:14 and 1John
4:3 or
the Hebrew word play at Hosea 10:10 with the same root.
Jack
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