From: Alan B. Thomas (a_b_thomas@yahoo.com)
Date: Sat May 05 2001 - 09:58:09 EDT
I realize that English has adopted this concept; from
where I know not.
But as I review the various NT grammars on the
Editorial "we," I remain unconvinced that this was
ever the thought behind a NT writer. (We = me)
In each instance, I can make equal (better perhaps)
sense out of a supposed Editorial "we" by
understanding it as, for example, Paul and his
entourage (Exclusive use), or Paul (and his entourage)
and the readers (Inclusive use).
Is this possibly a case of reading a modern idiom back
into the NT, or, is there substantial use of this
Editorial "we" in other ancient languages? I really am
not sure how one could find an "undisputed" example of
such a usage. It's hard enough to do that in English.
Would there be any strong objections for eliminating
the Editorial "we" altogether?
=====
Sincerely,
Alan B. Thomas
"There may be no way out, but there
is always a way up."
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